I wonder if the sequencing in these two sets was done at the insistence of the respective conductors. The fact that both sets are produced by BR Klassik leads me to think that it was a deliberate decision by the person(s) in charge at BR Klassik.
It's a minor point in the grand scheme of things, but it's always bothered me when Bruckner's "0" symphony is treated as if it was composed before Symphony No. 1. (Of course, some listeners--and at least one critic--dismiss this symphony altogether.)
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